Indian Polity & Constitution MCQs
DATED-25TH JUNE,2025
1.Which organization’s annual reports do not get submitted directly to the Parliament by the President of India?
[A] Finance Commission
[B] National Human Rights Commission
[C] Public Accounts Committee
[D] Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
Correct Answer: B [National Human Rights Commission]
Notes:
The annual report of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) does not lay directly before the Parliament by the President of India. Contrarily, annual reports from commissions like the Finance Commission and the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) are presented by the President. The NHRC instead submits its report to the Central Government, which is subsequently presented to the Parliament. A notable fact is that Parliamentary Committees independently present their respective reports during the Parliament’s sessions.
2.Which of the following states is not included in the sixth schedule of Indian Constitution?
[A] Meghalaya
[B] Tripura
[C] Mizoram
[D] Manipur
Correct Answer: D [Manipur]
Notes:
Sixth Schedule of Indian Constitution consists of provisions for administration of Tribal Area in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram & Arunachal Pradesh. District or the Regional Councils in these states may after its first constitution make rules with the approval of the Governor.
3.Which among the following Article deals with the rights of citizenships of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside of India?
[A] Article 6
[B] Article 7
[C] Article 8
[D] Article 9
Correct Answer: C [Article 8]
Notes:
Article 8 deals with the rights of citizenship of certain persons of India origin residing outside India at the time of enactment of the constitution.
4.If there is a dispute in the presidential election it will be referred whom among the following?
[A] Chief Election Commissioner
[B] Supreme Court
[C] Parliament
[D] Vice President
Correct Answer: B [Supreme Court]
Notes:
According to Article 71 of the Indian Constitution, all doubts and disputes regarding the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India.
5.The term Vote on account in the parliamentary terminology is used in context of following?
[A] Election of President and Vice President
[B] Special Vote by Lok Sabha Speaker
[C] Full Budget
[D] Short expenditures of revenues
Correct Answer: D [Short expenditures of revenues]
Notes:
The term “Vote on Account” in parliamentary terminology is used in the context of [D] Short expenditures of revenues.
A Vote on Account is a provision made by the government to secure funds for a limited period to meet essential and urgent expenditures when the full budget for the financial year has not been passed by the Parliament. It allows the government to withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India to cover expenses like salaries, ongoing programs, and other essential government functions until the full budget is approved.
This interim arrangement ensures that the government can continue its operations and services without disruption even if the detailed budget proposals are still under discussion and approval in the Parliament. Once the full budget is passed, the Vote on Account is replaced by the Appropriation Bill, which contains the detailed allocation of funds for various government activities.
6.Article 213 which embodies the ordinance making power of the governor of the state is very similar to that of President embodies in which of the following articles?
[A] Article 111
[B] Article 115
[C] Article 121
[D] Article 123
Correct Answer: D [Article 123]
Notes:
Article 213 which embodies the ordinance making power of the governor of the state is very similar to that of article 123 which grants the President certain law-making powers to promulgate ordinances.
7.Which of the following president of India was only person to be elected unopposed?
[A] 4th President
[B] 5th President
[C] 6th President
[D] 7th President
Correct Answer: C [6th President]
Notes:
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the only person to be elected unopposed. He was sixth president of India.
8.Which among the following Union Territory had a Judicial Commissioner’s Court?
[A] Pondicherry
[B] Andaman & Nicobar Islands
[C] Daman & Diu
[D] Lakshadweep
Correct Answer: C [Daman & Diu]
Notes:
Before Goa, Daman and Diu became part of India, a Tribunal the Relacao was highest court in these territories. In 1963, this Tribunal the Relacao was abolished and a court of judicial commissioner was established under Goa Daman and Diu (Judicial Commissioner’s Court) Regulation 1963. The Judicial Commissioner’s Court was the highest court of appeal and revision for the Union Territory. In 1981, the parliament passed High Court of Bombay (Extension of Jurisdiction to Goa Daman and Diu) Act, 1981 act to extend the Jurisdiction of High Court at Bombay to Union Territory of Goa, Daman and Diu and abolish the then existing court of Judicial Commissioner.
9.Article 20 of the Indian Constitution is an important fundamental right as it provides protection in respect of conviction for offences. Which of the following is not a safeguard under Article 20?
[A] Ex-Post facto law
[B] Double jeopardy
[C] Prohibition against self-incrimination
[D] Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours
Correct Answer: D [Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours]
Notes:
Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours is a safeguard against arbitrary arrest and detention provided under Article 22.
10.Which of the following can a court issue for enforcement of Fundamental Rights ?
[A] A decree
[B] A writ
[C] An Ordinance
[D] A notification
Correct Answer: B [A writ]
Notes:
A writ is a formal written order issued by a body with administrative or judicial jurisdiction, this body is generally a court for enforcementof any of the fundamental rights conferred by part III of Indian Constitution under article 32 the Constitution of India empowers the supreme Court to Issue writs.
11.As per the Government of India act 1919, the life of the Council of State and Legislative Assembly were as follows:
[A] 5 Years , 3 years
[B] 3 Years , 5 years
[C] 5 Years , 5 years
[D] 3 Years , 3 years
Correct Answer: A [5 Years , 3 years]
Notes:
According to the Government of India Act 1919, the life of the Council of State was 5 years and the life of Legislative Assembly was 3 years.
12.Which among the following committees recommends allocation of time for discussion on various items in a house of Parliament?
[A] Business Advisory Committee
[B] Rules Committee
[C] Committee on Subordinate Legislation
[D] Committee on Papers Laid on the Table
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A [Business Advisory Committee]
Notes:
Each house has its own Business Advisory Committee. Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha consists of 15 members including the Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairman. The members are nominated by the Speaker. Almost all sections of the House are represented on the Committee as per the respective strength of parties in the House. The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the discussion of such Government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee. The Committee, on its own initiative, may also recommend to the Government to bring forward particular subjects for discussion in the House and recommend allocation of time for such discussions. The decisions reached by the Committee are always unanimous in character and representative of the collective view of the House. The Committee generally meets at the beginning of each Session and thereafter as and when necessary.
13.Which of the following is the criterion for a political party to be recognized as a national party?
[A] When it contests elections in all the States of the country
[B] When it secures at least five per cent of the total votes cast in a national election
[C] If it captures power at least in three States
[D] If it is recognized as a political party in four or more States
Correct Answer: D [If it is recognized as a political party in four or more States]
Notes:
A registered party is recognized as a national party only if it fulfils any one of the following three conditions: At a general election to Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly, the party polls 6% of votes in any four or more states and in addition it wins four Lok Sabha seats.
14.No money bill can be introduced in the legislative assembly without the recommendations of which of the following authorities?
[A] Speaker
[B] Governor
[C] Chief Minister
[D] Finance Minister
Correct Answer: B [Governor]
Notes:
No money bill can be introduced without the governor’s recommendation. Such a bill is a government bill and can be introduced only by a minister. It can be introduced only in legislative assembly. The bill if passed goes to the legislative council.
15.Who held the portfolio of External Affairs and Commonwealth relations in the first cabinet of free India?
[A] Jawaharlal Nehru
[B] Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
[C] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[D] Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
Correct Answer: A [ Jawaharlal Nehru ]
Notes:
Jawaharlal Nehru, as the first Prime Minister of free India, held the portfolio of External Affairs and Commonwealth relations. He also held the portfolio of Scientific Research in the first cabinet of free India.
16.Which Schedules contain the provisions regarding administration of Scheduled areas and Tribal areas?
[A] 4th and 5th Schedules
[B] 5th and 6th Schedules
[C] 6th and 7th Schedules
[D] 5th and 7th Schedules
Correct Answer: B [ 5th and 6th Schedules ]
Notes:
The fifth and sixth schedules of the Constitution of India contains separate provisions with respect to the administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas within the states.
17.What is the purpose of inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India?
[A] To establish social and religious democracy
[B] To establish political democracy
[C] To establish social and economic democracy
[D] To establish Gandhian democracy
Correct Answer: C [To establish social and economic democracy]
Notes:
The Directive Principles of State serve to the purpose of establishing social and economic democracy. They constitute a very elaborate economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State.
18.Which of the following is not a part of the Union executive?
[A] The President
[B] The Vice President
[C] The Attorney General of India
[D] Chief Justice of India
Correct Answer: D [Chief Justice of India]
Notes:
The Union executive of the government of India consists of the President, the Vice- President, the Prime Minister, the council of ministers and the attorney general of India. Chief Justice of India does not form a part of the Union executive.
19.Which amendment act of Parliament increased the strength of Lok Sabha from 525 to 545?
[A] 35th
[B] 42nd
[C] 31st
[D] 45th
Correct Answer: C [31st]
Notes:
The strength of Lok Sabha was increased from 525 to 545 by the 31st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1973. The number of members to represent the states was increased from 500 to 525 and number of members to represent the UTs was decreased from 25 to 20.
20.What is the criteria for allocation of seats in Lok Sabha?
[A] Area
[B] Language
[C] Poverty
[D] Population
Correct Answer: D [Population]
Notes:
Each state is divided into territorial constituency for the purpose of election to Lok Sabha. The division is done in such a manner that the ratio between the population of each constituency and the number of sets allotted to it is so far as practicable same throughout the state.
21.Which of the following represent the qualifications needed to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court?
[A] The person should have been a judge of a High Court for five years
[B] The person should have been an advocate of a High Court
[C] The person should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president
[D] All of the above
Correct Answer: D [All of the above]
Notes:
To be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court a person should have the following qualifications: (1) He should be a citizen of India, (2) He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years; or he should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years; or he should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.
22.Which Article of the Constitutions deals with dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement and covenant?
[A] Article 143
[B] Article 144
[C] Article 145
[D] Article 146
Correct Answer: A [Article 143]
Notes:
Article 143 of the Indian Constitution authorises the president to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the following matters: (1) On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise and (2) On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instruments.
23.Where did the doctrine of judicial review originate?
[A] Britain
[B] India
[C] USA
[D] France
Correct Answer: C [USA]
Notes:
Judicial review as a doctrine was developed in the USA in 1803 by John Marshall, the then chief justice of the American Supreme Court, in the famous case of Marbury versus Madison.
24.Who wrote the book “The Spirit of Laws”?
[A] Machiavelli
[B] Montesquieu
[C] Thomas Hobbes
[D] Jean-Jacques Rousseau
Correct Answer: B [Montesquieu]
Notes:
In asking the Indian courts to maintain judicial restraint in 2007, Supreme Court quoted from the book ‘The Spirit of Laws’ by Montesquieu criticizing judiciary for “overreach” and encroachment on the domain of the other two organs”.
25.What is the meaning of Judicial Enthusiasm?
[A] Judges like to maintain restraint
[B] Judges like to participate in the social reforms
[C] Judges like to follow judicial precedent
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: B [Judges like to participate in the social reforms]
Notes:
Judicial Enthusiasm means that the judges take active interest in social reforms that are a need of the changing times. It has the effect of encouraging the Public Interest Litigation and liberalisation of the principle of “Locus Standi”.
26.From which of the areas of special knowledge, the Governor nominates one-sixth of the members of the state legislative council?
[A] Cooperative movement
[B] Science
[C] Literature
[D] All of the above
Correct Answer: D [All of the above]
Notes:
One-sixth of the members of the state legislative council are nominated by the Governor from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.
27.What are the powers of the Governor with regards to the Money Bill?
[A] He can return the Money bill back to the state legislature
[B] Money bills can be introduced in the state legislature without his prior recommendation
[C] Both of them
[D] None of them
Correct Answer: D [None of them]
Notes:
Th Governor is not empowered to send back the Money bill for the reconsideration of the state legislature. Nonetheless, a Money bill has to go through the process of the prior recommendation of the Governor if it is to be introduced in the state legislature.
28.Where can be the money bill introduced ?
1. Legislative Assembly
2. Legislative Council
3. Joint sitting of both houses
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Correct Answer: A [Only 1]
Notes:
A Money Bill can only be introduced in the legislative assembly. It can be introduced in the state legislative assembly only on the recommendation of the governor.
29.The salaries and allowances of the judges of the High Court are charged on the:
[A] Contingency Fund of the State
[B] Consolidated Fund of India
[C] Consolidated Fund of State
[D] Contingency Fund of India
Correct Answer: C [Consolidated Fund of State]
Notes:
According to Article 203(3) of the Constitution of India, the salaries and allowances of the judges of the High court of a state are charged on the consolidated fund of the state.
30.In which year was the separate High Court of Andhra Pradesh established after separation from Telangana?
[A] 2017
[B] 2018
[C] 2019
[D] 2020
Correct Answer: C [2019]
Notes:
The separate High Court of the state of Andhra Pradesh after separation from Telangana was recently established in the year 2019. It was established in Amravati city which is the new capital of Andhra Pradesh.
31.Who shall be consulted before making the acquisition of land in the Scheduled Areas for development projects?
[A] Governor
[B] Chief Minister
[C] Gram Sabha
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: C [Gram Sabha]
Notes:
According to the PESA Act the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be consulted before making the acquisition of land in the Scheduled Areas for development projects. Gram Sabha should also be consulted before resettling or rehabilitating persons affected by such projects in the Scheduled Areas.
32.Which of the following are a type of the urban local government?
[A] Municipal corporation
[B] Cantonment board
[C] Port trust
[D] All of the above
Correct Answer: D [All of the above]
Notes:
Eight types of urban local governments function in India–
1. Municipal corporation
2. Municipality
3. Notified area committee
4. Town area committee
5. Cantonment board
6. Township
7. Port trust
8. Special purpose agency
33.Who conducts elections to panchayats and municipalities in the states?
[A] Election Commission of India
[B] State Election Commission
[C] District Election Commission
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: B [State Election Commission]
Notes:
The Constitution of India provides for a separate State Election Commission for elections to the panchayats and municipalities in the states.
34.In which year the two posts of election commissioners created in 1989 were abolished?
[A] 1989
[B] 1990
[C] 1995
[D] 2000
Correct Answer: B [1990]
Notes:
The two posts of election commissioners created in 1989 were abolished in January 1990 and the Election Commission was again made a single member body. But again in October 1993, the president of India appointed two more election commissioners.
35.Consider the following:
The Chairperson of the National Commission for Minorities
The Chairperson of the National Commission for SCs
The Chairperson of the National Commission for Women
The Chairperson of the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
Which of the above are the ex-officio members of National Human Rights Commission?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 and 2
[C] Only 2 and 3
[D] All are ex-officio members
Correct Answer: D [All are ex-officio members]
Notes:
The National Human Rights Commission consists of several ex-officio members that include but are not limited to the chairpersons of various commissions. These include the National Commission for Minorities, the National Commission for SCs, the National Commission for Women, the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights, and others. As such, all the options presented in the question are indeed ex-officio members of the NHRC, making the correct answer ‘All are ex-officio members’.
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