Indian Polity & Constitution MCQs
Indian Polity & Constitution Objective / Multiple Choice (MCQs) Questions for Preparation of SSC-CGL, UPSC Civil Services, NDA, CDS, Railways and State Level Public Services Examinations.
DATED-1ST SEPT,2025
1.How many presidents of India so far were elected unopposed?
[A] One
[B] Two
[C] Three
[D] Four
Correct Answer: B [ Two ]
Notes:
Apart from N Sanjiva Reddy First President Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected unopposed for the period 1950 to 1952; but he faced opposition in further elections.
2.What is the maximum life of an ordinance promulgated by President of India?
[A] 6 months
[B] 7.5 months
[C] 8 months
[D] 10 months
Correct Answer: B [7.5 months]
Notes:
Article 123 of the Indian constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances. This mechanism has been devised to enable the executive to deal with a situation that may suddenly and immediately arise when the Parliament is not in session (either one or both houses). As maximum gap between two session of a house can be 6 months therefore maximum life of a ordinance can be 6 months and 6 weeks, which is roughly 7.5 months.
3.“Riksdag” is the name of parliament of which of the following?
[A] Iran
[B] Norway
[C] Sweden
[D] Kazakhstan
Correct Answer: C [Sweden]
Notes:
The Riksdag is the national legislature and the supreme decision-making body of the government of Sweden.
4.What is the purpose of the appointment of judicial and administrative members of the Armed Forces Tribunal?
[A] Speedy justice to personnel of the armed forces.
[B] To make decisions on One Rank One Pension
[C] Speedy recruitment in the armed forces
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: A [Speedy justice to personnel of the armed forces.]
Notes:
The need for an Armed Force Tribunal arose because there was no provision for military personnel to exercise a meaningful right of appeal. The purpose is to provide Speedy justice to personnel of the armed forces.
5.Which among the following is the most appropriate definition of Political liberty of Citizens of India ?
[A] Right to participate in the government and assume equal opportunity to assume highest office
[B] right to cast vote and participate in the election process
[C] Equal opportunity to freely move in the Political territories of India
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: A [Right to participate in the government and assume equal opportunity to assume highest office]
Notes:
The rights to life and personal liberty apply for persons of any nationality, while others, such as the freedom of speech and expression are applicable only to the citizens of India (including non-resident Indian citizens).
6.Which of the following are called “scheduled areas” as per Indian constitution?
[A] Tribal inhabited areas located in North East India
[B] Tribal inhabited areas which are located in other parts of India other than North East India
[C] Tribal inhabited areas located all over India including NE states
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: B [Tribal inhabited areas which are located in other parts of India other than North East India]
Notes:
Tribal inhabited areas which are located in other parts of India than North East India. Tribal areas of the Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are separately dealt with provisions given in 5th schedule
7.Which of the following Constitution Amendment Act provided for reservation of seats for scheduled tribes of Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram, & Arunachal Pradesh state assemblies?
[A] 52nd
[B] 57th
[C] 61st
[D] 65th
Correct Answer: B [57th]
Notes:
Fifty-Seventh Amendment Act, 1987 had reserved seats for the STs in the legislative assemblies of the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland.
8.Which among the following is a correct function of Public Accounts Committee?
[A] It works under President of India and creates accounts for various ministries
[B] It works under Comptroller and Auditor General of India and prepares accounts
[C] It is a parliamentary committee which gives report on nonplan expenditures of the government
[D] It is a parliamentary committee which scrutinizes the report of the Comptroller & Auditor General of India
Correct Answer: D [It is a parliamentary committee which scrutinizes the report of the Comptroller & Auditor General of India]
Notes:
Public Accounts Committee examines the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President.
9.Which of the following parts of Indian constitution has only one article?
[A] Part XVII
[B] Part XVIII
[C] Part XIX
[D] Part XX
Correct Answer: D [Part XX]
Notes:
Part XX article 368, amendment of the constitution
10.The Recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee led to which of the following constitutional Amendments?
[A] 72nd Amendment
[B] 73rd Amendment
[C] 74th Amendment
[D] 75th Amendment
Correct Answer: B [73rd Amendment]
Notes:
The recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee led to 73rd Amendment Act to the Constitution of India. It contains provisions about Panchayats in India.
11.Which of the following provision needs a special majority in Parliament?
[A] Creation of New States
[B] Abolition of Legislative Councils in State
[C] Rules and Procedures in Parliament
[D] Change in Fundamental Rights
Correct Answer: D [Change in Fundamental Rights]
Notes:
The Fundamental rights can be amended by Parliament of India under Article 368. It requires special majority of both the houses of Parliament (loksabha and rajyasabha) that means majority of total membership of the house and majority of not less than two-third of members present and voting.
12.Which Amendment of the Constitution gave priority to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?
[A] 36th Amendment
[B] 38th Amendment
[C] 40th Amendment
[D] 42nd Amendment
Correct Answer: D [42nd Amendment]
Notes:
The 42nd Amendment gave primacy to the Directive Principles. It states that no law implementing any of the Directive Principles could be declared unconstitutional on the grounds that it violated any of the Fundamental Rights.
13.Under which of the following rights “Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion” etc. is included?
[A] the Right to Freedom of Religion
[B] the Right against Exploitation
[C] the Cultural and Educational Rights
[D] the Right to Equality
Correct Answer: D [the Right to Equality]
Notes:
Right to equality is one of the six fundamental rights in the Indian constitution. It includes equality before law, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of race, religion, gender, and caste or birth place. In simple words we can say it is the right to live with equal opportunities.
14.Which act during British India gave the power to President to issue ordinances?
[A] Government of India Act, 1919
[B] Government of India Act, 1909
[C] Government of India Act, 1935
[D] Indian Independence act, 1947
Correct Answer: C [ Government of India Act, 1935 ]
Notes:
In British India, the Governor-General was empowered to promulgate ordinance without the permission of the legislative council under Indian Councils Act, 1861. However, the President’s power to promulgate ordinances was inspired by section 42 of the Government of India Act, 1935.
15.Lord Canning nominated three Indians to his legislative council. Who was not the part of the council?
[A] Raja of Benares
[B] Maharaja of Patiala
[C] Sir Dinkar Rao
[D] All were in the council
Correct Answer: D [ All were in the council ]
Notes:
In 1862, Lord Canning, the then Viceroy of British India, nominated three Indians to his legislative council. The Raja of Banaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao were the part of the council.
16.Which of the following writs is issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities?
Certiorari
Prohibition
Habeas Corpus
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 3
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Correct Answer: A [Only 1 & 2]
Notes:
The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies. The writ of certiorari, on the other hand, can be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities; and even against administrative authorities.
17.What can a President do when a money bill is presented to him?
1. Return the bill
2. Reject the bill
3. Give assent to the bill
4. Recommend changes to the bill
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1, 2 & 3
[D] All of the above
Correct Answer: B [Only 2 & 3]
Notes:
When a money bill is presented to the president he may either give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent to the bill. He cannot return the bill for reconsideration of the Houses of the Parliament.
18.On whose written recommendation the President can declare national emergency according to 42nd Constitutional Amendment?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] Cabinet
[C] Parliament
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: B [Cabinet]
Notes:
The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India states that the President can declare a national emergency only on the written recommendation of the cabinet.
19.What is the maximum number of members that a Parliamentary Forum can have?
[A] 21
[B] 25
[C] 30
[D] 31
Correct Answer: D [31]
Notes:
A Parliamentary Forum consists of not more than 31 members (excluding the President, Co-President and Vice-Presidents). Out of the 31 not more than 21 are from the Lok Sabha and not more than 10 are from the Rajya Sabha.
20.Who has the power to appoint the officers and servants of the Supreme Court?
[A] Chief Justice of India
[B] Parliament
[C] Prime Minister
[D] President
Correct Answer: A [Chief Justice of India]
Notes:
The Chief Justice of India is empowered to appoint officers and servants of the Supreme Court of India without any interference from the executive. He also has the power to prescribe their conditions of service.
21.For how long can the Vice President act as the President when the President is not able to perform his duties due to his resignation, removal, death or otherwise?
[A] 1 year
[B] 9 months
[C] 6 months
[D] 3 months
Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C [6 months]
Notes:
In case of a vacancy for the post of the President of India, it should not be vacant for more than six months. So the Vice President can hold the office of President for not more than six months.
22.Which Article of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills?
[A] Article 109
[B] Article 110
[C] Article 112
[D] Article 113
Correct Answer: B [Article 110]
Notes:
Article 110 of the Constitution of India deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax, regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government etc.
23.Which Amendment abolished the system of Election Tribunals?
[A] 12th
[B] 14th
[C] 17th
[D] 19th
Correct Answer: D [19th]
Notes:
The Nineteenth Constitutional Amendment Act of 1966 abolished the system of Election Tribunals. It also vested the power to hear election petitions in the High Courts.
24.Which Amendment empowered the president to declare different proclamations of national emergency on different grounds simultaneously?
[A] 38th Amendment Act, 1975
[B] 39th Amendment Act, 1975
[C] 40th Amendment Act, 1976
[D] 41st Amendment Act, 1976
Correct Answer: A [38th Amendment Act, 1975]
Notes:
The 38th amendment to the Constitution of India in the year 1975 empowered the president to declare different proclamations of national emergency on different grounds simultaneously.
25.Who administers oath to a person appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] President
[C] Chief Justice of India
[D] Vice President
Correct Answer: B [President ]
Notes:
Before entering upon his office for being appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court, an individual has to make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the President, or some person appointed by him for this purpose.
26.What is the minimum number of Judges of the Supreme Court required for hearing any case involving interpretation of the Constitution?
[A] 10
[B] 8
[C] 7
[D] 5
Correct Answer: D [5]
Notes:
The minimum number of Judges of the Supreme Court required for hearing any case involving interpretation of the Constitution of India is five. It is designated as the Constitutional Bench.
27.When can the the Parliament can abolish a legislative council or create it?
[A] If the Chief Minister requests the central legislature
[B] If Parliament passes a resolution to that effect
[C] If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect
[D] If the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect
Correct Answer: D [If the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect]
Notes:
The Constitution contains provisions for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states. The Parliament of India can abolish a legislative council (where it already exists) or create it (where it does not exist), if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect.
28.In which year was the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 was amended to provide for the establishment of the Permanent Lok Adalats?
[A] 2001
[B] 2002
[C] 2003
[D] 2004
Correct Answer: B [2002]
Notes:
The Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987 was amended in the year 2002 to provide for the establishment of the Permanent Lok Adalats to deal with cases pertaining to the public utility services in India.
29.In which year a study team on Panchayati Raj Finances under K. Santhanam constituted?
[A] 1963
[B] 1964
[C] 1965
[D] 1966
Correct Answer: A [1963]
Notes:
A study team on Panchayati Raj Finances was constituted by the government of India in the year 1962. It was constituted under the chairmanship of K. Santhanam.
30.Which of the following Schedules is associated with the items falling under the governing power of municipalities?
[A] Eleventh Schedule
[B] Fifth Schedule
[C] Eighth Schedule
[D] Twelfth Schedule
Correct Answer: D [Twelfth Schedule]
Notes:
Twelfth Schedule contains 18 functional items with respect to which municipalities have governing power.
31.Who decides criminal cases which are punishable with imprisonment for a term up to seven years?
[A] Chief judicial magistrate
[B] Munsiff
[C] Judicial magistrate
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: A [Chief judicial magistrate]
Notes:
It is the chief judicial magistrate who decides criminal cases which are punishable with imprisonment for a term up to seven years whereas the judicial magistrate tries criminal cases which are punishable with imprisonment for a term up to three years.
32.Which of the following bodies are a Special Purpose Agency?
[A] Water supply and sewerage boards
[B] Electricity supply boards
[C] Town improvement trusts
[D] All of them
Correct Answer: D [All of them]
Notes:
Following are the examples of Special Purpose Agencies-
1. Town improvement trusts
2. Urban development authorities
3. Water supply and sewerage boards
4. Housing boards
5. Pollution control boards
6. Electricity supply boards
7. City transport boards
33.Which of the following are the characteristics of the Central Council of Local Government?
[A] It is an advisory body
[B] It consists of Prime Minister in the Government of India
[C] It consists of Governor in states
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: A [It is an advisory body]
Notes:
The Central Council of Local Government is an advisory body, which consists of Minister for Urban Development in the Government of India and the ministers for local self government in states.
34.Which of the following UTs have a Lieutenant Governor?
[A] Puducherry
[B] Chandigarh
[C] Dadra and Nagar Haveli
[D] Daman and Diu
Correct Answer: A [Puducherry]
Notes:
Delhi, Puducherry, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh have a Lieutenant Governor. Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu and Lakshadweep are governed through an Administrator.
35.Which of the following statement is correct about the orders issued by the Delimitation Commission?
[A] They are scrutinized by the committee constituted for the same.
[B] They are subject to judicial review.
[C] They are final and cannot be challenged in any court.
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: C [They are final and cannot be challenged in any court.]
Notes:
According to the Constitution of India the orders issued by the Delimitation Commission are final and cannot be challenged in any court. Validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies cannot be questioned in any court.
36.Which of the following rejected the idea of making voting compulsory?
[A] K.M. Munshi
[B] Jawaharlal Nehru
[C] Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
[D] Mahatma Gandhi
Correct Answer: C [Dr. B.R. Ambedkar]
Notes:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar rejected the idea of making voting compulsory on account of practical difficulties during the discussion on the People’s Representation Bill in Parliament of India in the year 1951.
37.When was Lokayukta established in Delhi?
[A] 1999
[B] 2006
[C] 1995
[D] 2012
Correct Answer: C [1995]
Notes:
In Delhi, lokayukta was established in 1995. In Punjab, lokayukta was established in the same year.
38.Who has the right to make provisions for the incorporation, regulation and winding-up of co-operative societies?
[A] Lok Sabha
[B] Rajya Sabha
[C] Parliament
[D] State Legislature
Correct Answer: D [State Legislature]
Notes:
The state legislature in India is empowered to make provisions for the incorporation, regulation and winding-up of co-operative societies based on the principles of voluntary formation, democratic member control, member economic participation and autonomous functioning.
39.In how many states the State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) have been established?
[A] 9
[B] 10
[C] 15
[D] 20
Correct Answer: A [9]
Notes:
The State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) have been set up in the nine states of Andhra Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Odisha, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and Kerala. However, the Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Himachal Pradesh Tribunals have since been abolished.
40.The Arms Act of 1959 is divided into how many chapters?
[A] 4
[B] 5
[C] 6
[D] 7
Correct Answer: C [6]
Notes:
The Arms Act of 1959 is divided into 6 chapters. Chapter I: Parliamentary, Chapter II: Acquisition, Possession, Manufacture, Sale, Import, Export, and Transport of Arms and Ammunition, Chapter III: Provisions relating to licences, Chapter IV: Powers and Procedure, Chapter V: Offences and penalties and Chapter VI: Miscellaneous.
41.Who can impose reasonable restrictions over fundamental rights ?
[A] Council of Ministers
[B] Parliament
[C] People
[D] Cabinet
Correct Answer: B [Parliament]
Notes:
The Fundamental Rights are not absolute and are subject to reasonable restrictions as necessary for the protection of public interest. They can be enhanced, removed or otherwise altered through a constitutional amendment, passed by a two-thirds majority of each House of Parliament.
42.As per the Indian Constitution under which condition freedom of expression is taken away from citizens?
[A] Imprisonment
[B] Veto
[C] Coup
[D] Censorship
Correct Answer: D [Censorship]
Notes:
As per the Indian constitution, the State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the freedom of speech and expression on the grounds of sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the state, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence. These come under the conditions of censorship.
43.Which one of the following methods is used to ascertain the public opinion on important legislation ?
[A] Initiative
[B] Recall
[C] Referendum
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: A [Initiative]
Notes:
In political science, an initiative (also known as a popular or citizens’ initiative) is a means by which a petition signed by a certain minimum number of registered voters can force a public vote (plebiscite). The vote may be on a proposed statute, constitutional amendment, charter amendment or ordinance, or, in its minimal form, to simply oblige the executive or legislative bodies to consider the subject by submitting it to the order of the day. It is a form of direct democracy.
44.In which year was the “House of the People” named as “Lok Sabha” ?
[A] 1954
[B] 1964
[C] 1974
[D] 1984
Correct Answer: A [1954 ]
Notes:
The Lok Sabha (House of the People) was duly constituted for the first time on 17 April, 1952 after the first General Elections held from 25 October 1951 to 21 February, 1952. The first Session of the First Lok Sabha commenced on 13 May, 1952. The Lower House or the House of the People was named the ”Lok Sabha” in Hindi on 14th May, 1954.
45.Which bill can be introduced without the prior recommendation of the President of India?
[A] Money Bill
[B] Finance Bill
[C] Ordinary Bill
[D] No option is correct.
Correct Answer: C [Ordinary Bill]
Notes:
Ordinary Bills can be introduced in either House of Indian Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) without the recommendations of President of India. These bills are passed by simple majority in both Houses. Ordinary bills are concerned with any matter other than Financial Bills, Money Bills and Constitutional Amendment Bills.
46.Who was the prime minister of India during “the Emergency” between the year 1975 to 1977?
[A] Indira Gandhi
[B] Rajiv Gandhi
[C] Moraj Desai
[D] Charan Singh
Correct Answer: A [Indira Gandhi]
Notes:
In India, “the Emergency” refers to a 19-month period from 1975 to 1977 when Prime Minister Indira Gandhi had a state of emergency declared across the country. Officially issued by President Fakh-ruddin Ali Ahmed because of the prevailing “internal distur-bance”, the Emergency was in effect from 26 June 1975 until its withdrawal on 21 March 1977.
47.Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides for the formation of a new state ?
[A] Article 1
[B] Article 3
[C] Article 2
[D] Article 9
Correct Answer: B [Article 3]
Notes:
Article-3 of Indian Cons-titution addresses the topic of ‘Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States’. It says; Parliament may by law (a) form a new State by sepa-ration of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State; (b) increase the area of any State; (c) diminish the area of any State; (d) alter the boundaries of any State; (e) alter the name of any State.
48.Matters, which are not points of order, can be raised by way of Special Mentions under Rule ________ of Lok Sabha.
[A] 377
[B] 302
[C] 223
[D] 214
Correct Answer: A [377]
Notes:
Matters, which are not points of order or which cannot be raised under the rules relating to Questions, Short Notice Questions, Calling Attention, Motions etc. can be raised under rule 377. Notice for raising a matter under rule 377 is to be given in writing addressed to the Secretary-General specifying clearly and precisely the text of the matter to be raised.
49.The power to decide an Election Petition for the State is vested in the
[A] Parliament
[B] Supreme Court
[C] High Courts
[D] Election Commission
Correct Answer: C [High Courts]
Notes:
Section 80-A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides that the High Court shall be the authority for presentment of election petitions under Article 329(b) of the Constitution. This was incorporated by an amendment in the year 1966 (Act 47 of 1966).
50.A federal government is in the shape of__:
[A] Command by the Centre
[B] Appeal from the States
[C] Agreement between the Centre and the States
[D] Single Party Rule
Correct Answer: C [Agreement between the Centre and the States]
Notes:
A federation is a political entity characterized by a union of partially self-governing states or regions under a central (federal) Government. The governmental or constitutional structure found in a federation is marked by agreement between the centre and the states
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